Conditions and Treatments - NCLEX-PN
Card 1 of 5640
Which of the following organisms causes whooping cough?
Which of the following organisms causes whooping cough?
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Whooping cough, a condition that results in severe paroxysmal coughing fits followed by a long wheezing inspiratory gasp (the "whoop") is caused by the bacteria B ordetella pertussis. _Haemophilus influenza_e and Klebsiella pneumoniae both commonly cause pneumonia, and RSV is a virus that is frequently implicated in lower respiratory infections of infants and children.
Whooping cough, a condition that results in severe paroxysmal coughing fits followed by a long wheezing inspiratory gasp (the "whoop") is caused by the bacteria B ordetella pertussis. _Haemophilus influenza_e and Klebsiella pneumoniae both commonly cause pneumonia, and RSV is a virus that is frequently implicated in lower respiratory infections of infants and children.
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How long is the incubation period for pertussis?
How long is the incubation period for pertussis?
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The incubation period for pertussis, also known as the catarrhal stage, can last as little as 4 days or as long as 42 days, but a typical period is 1-3 weeks. During this stage the disease looks like a regular upper respiratory infection, with sneezing, mild cough, and runny nose. The infected individual is highly infectious at this time, with bacteria spread by airborne droplets after sneezing or cough.
The incubation period for pertussis, also known as the catarrhal stage, can last as little as 4 days or as long as 42 days, but a typical period is 1-3 weeks. During this stage the disease looks like a regular upper respiratory infection, with sneezing, mild cough, and runny nose. The infected individual is highly infectious at this time, with bacteria spread by airborne droplets after sneezing or cough.
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In pertussis, what stage follows the incubation (also known as the catarrhal) stage?
In pertussis, what stage follows the incubation (also known as the catarrhal) stage?
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After the catarrhal stage, an individual with pertussis will progress into the paroxysmal stage. It's during this stage that they will experience uncontrollable fits of 5-15 forceful coughs, followed by a "whoop" or gasp as they struggle to inhale. The force of these coughs can be such that they can result in vomiting, epistaxis, subconjunctival hemorrhage, or even broken ribs.
After the catarrhal stage, an individual with pertussis will progress into the paroxysmal stage. It's during this stage that they will experience uncontrollable fits of 5-15 forceful coughs, followed by a "whoop" or gasp as they struggle to inhale. The force of these coughs can be such that they can result in vomiting, epistaxis, subconjunctival hemorrhage, or even broken ribs.
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What is the final stage of a pertussis infection?
What is the final stage of a pertussis infection?
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The final stage of a pertussis infection is known as the convalescent phase. This occurs for 2-6 weeks, after the paroxysmal stage of the disease. During this time coughing decreases, and paroxysms are less severe. The infected individual may experience increased susceptibility to upper and lower respiratory conditions for as much as 6 months after resolution of the infection.
The final stage of a pertussis infection is known as the convalescent phase. This occurs for 2-6 weeks, after the paroxysmal stage of the disease. During this time coughing decreases, and paroxysms are less severe. The infected individual may experience increased susceptibility to upper and lower respiratory conditions for as much as 6 months after resolution of the infection.
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Which of the following is considered a late sign of hunger in the newborn?
Which of the following is considered a late sign of hunger in the newborn?
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Crying is considered a late sign of hunger. By the time the infant cries, they may be more difficult to console or to feed, especially if breastfeeding. Feed on cue when the infant is rooting, making sucking motions, or when they are frequently bringing their hands to their face or mouth.
Crying is considered a late sign of hunger. By the time the infant cries, they may be more difficult to console or to feed, especially if breastfeeding. Feed on cue when the infant is rooting, making sucking motions, or when they are frequently bringing their hands to their face or mouth.
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Parotid gland enlargement, fever, myalgia, and tender salivary glands would indicate which of the following conditions?
Parotid gland enlargement, fever, myalgia, and tender salivary glands would indicate which of the following conditions?
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Parotid gland enlargement, fever, myalgia, and tender salivary glands are all indicative of infection with the mumps virus. Symptoms typically last for 7-10 days, though sequelae such as hearing damage and testicular disorders can be long-lasting or even permanent.
Parotid gland enlargement, fever, myalgia, and tender salivary glands are all indicative of infection with the mumps virus. Symptoms typically last for 7-10 days, though sequelae such as hearing damage and testicular disorders can be long-lasting or even permanent.
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Symptoms of acute human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) typically occur within how long after infection?
Symptoms of acute human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) typically occur within how long after infection?
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Symptoms of acute HIV generally occur 2-4 weeks after infection. A vast array of symptoms may be present such as fever, rash, generalized fatigue, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and a sore throat.
Symptoms of acute HIV generally occur 2-4 weeks after infection. A vast array of symptoms may be present such as fever, rash, generalized fatigue, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and a sore throat.
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Which of the following causes microcytic hypochromic anemia?
Which of the following causes microcytic hypochromic anemia?
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All of these result in microcytic hypochromic anemia, which is a type of anemia characterized by small red blood cells called microcytes that contain lower concentrations of hemoglobin than healthy red blood cells.
All of these result in microcytic hypochromic anemia, which is a type of anemia characterized by small red blood cells called microcytes that contain lower concentrations of hemoglobin than healthy red blood cells.
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Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
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75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
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What is the most significant risk of hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium)?
What is the most significant risk of hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium)?
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Mild hyperkalemia may be asymptomatic, but a significant rise if potassium levels above normal can cause fatal heart arrhythmia, resulting in sudden cardiac death.
Weakness, tremors, and cramps are common symptoms of mild hypokalemia (depressed potassium levels), while respiratory depression and rhabdomyolysis can occur with severe cases of hypokalemia.
Mild hyperkalemia may be asymptomatic, but a significant rise if potassium levels above normal can cause fatal heart arrhythmia, resulting in sudden cardiac death.
Weakness, tremors, and cramps are common symptoms of mild hypokalemia (depressed potassium levels), while respiratory depression and rhabdomyolysis can occur with severe cases of hypokalemia.
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Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
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The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
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What muscle pathology is often linked to small cell lung cancer?
What muscle pathology is often linked to small cell lung cancer?
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Approximately 60% of patients diagnosed with Lambert-Eaton syndrome have an underlying cancer, most often small cell lung cancer. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is an autoimmune disorder in which the release of neurotransmitter is not permitted due to antibodies against the presynaptic calcium channels. This results in muscle weakness in the limbs. The other conditions listed are not associated with any respiratory cancers.
Approximately 60% of patients diagnosed with Lambert-Eaton syndrome have an underlying cancer, most often small cell lung cancer. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is an autoimmune disorder in which the release of neurotransmitter is not permitted due to antibodies against the presynaptic calcium channels. This results in muscle weakness in the limbs. The other conditions listed are not associated with any respiratory cancers.
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60% of cases of stomach cancer in the United States are associated with what infection?
60% of cases of stomach cancer in the United States are associated with what infection?
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Helicobacter pylori is present in the stomach of 60% of individuals with gastric cancer. Cancer in these cases may be caused by chronic inflammation at the site of infection, resulting in metaplasia.
Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella enterica, and Escherichia coli are all common causes of gastroenteritis but are not associated with malignancy.
Helicobacter pylori is present in the stomach of 60% of individuals with gastric cancer. Cancer in these cases may be caused by chronic inflammation at the site of infection, resulting in metaplasia.
Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella enterica, and Escherichia coli are all common causes of gastroenteritis but are not associated with malignancy.
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for renal cell carcinoma?
Which of the following is not a risk factor for renal cell carcinoma?
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Smoking, obesity, and high blood pressure are among the most common risk factors for development of renal cell carcinoma. Other risk factors include genetic susceptibility, diuretic use, and male gender. Alcohol consumption has not been associated with increased rates of renal cell cancer.
Smoking, obesity, and high blood pressure are among the most common risk factors for development of renal cell carcinoma. Other risk factors include genetic susceptibility, diuretic use, and male gender. Alcohol consumption has not been associated with increased rates of renal cell cancer.
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Renal cell carcinoma can cause what paraneoplastic syndrome?
Renal cell carcinoma can cause what paraneoplastic syndrome?
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Renal cell carcinoma can cause hypercalcemia, due to secretion of PTHrP (parathyroid hormone-related protein).
SIADH and Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome are both associated with small-cell lung cancer, while polymyositis is associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
Renal cell carcinoma can cause hypercalcemia, due to secretion of PTHrP (parathyroid hormone-related protein).
SIADH and Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome are both associated with small-cell lung cancer, while polymyositis is associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
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What cell line is metaplastic in multiple myeloma?
What cell line is metaplastic in multiple myeloma?
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Multiple myeloma is caused by metaplasia of plasma cells. No other white blood cell type is typically metaplastic, though abnormal plasma cell accumulation in bone marrow does interfere with the synthesis of all other blood cell types.
Multiple myeloma is caused by metaplasia of plasma cells. No other white blood cell type is typically metaplastic, though abnormal plasma cell accumulation in bone marrow does interfere with the synthesis of all other blood cell types.
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Hepatocellular carcinoma is also associated with what toxin?
Hepatocellular carcinoma is also associated with what toxin?
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Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with exposure to aflatoxin, from Aspergillus species, which can be found in many foods. Most commonly contaminated foods are corn, peanuts (and peanut butter), pistachios, brazil nuts, chillies, black pepper, dried fruit, and figs.
Asbestos is linked to mesothelioma, organophosphate exposure is linked to leukemia, and lead exposure has not been directly associated with any increase in malignancy, although current studies are pending further evidence.
Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with exposure to aflatoxin, from Aspergillus species, which can be found in many foods. Most commonly contaminated foods are corn, peanuts (and peanut butter), pistachios, brazil nuts, chillies, black pepper, dried fruit, and figs.
Asbestos is linked to mesothelioma, organophosphate exposure is linked to leukemia, and lead exposure has not been directly associated with any increase in malignancy, although current studies are pending further evidence.
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What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
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The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
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Overdose of which of the following over-the-counter medications is one of the leading causes of liver failure in the United States?
Overdose of which of the following over-the-counter medications is one of the leading causes of liver failure in the United States?
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Acetaminophen causes more liver failure in the United States than viral hepatitis, making it one of the most common causes of liver-related emergency room visits. It causes approximately 78,000 emergency room visits and 150 deaths due to liver failure each year. None of the other medications listed are associated with liver failure.
Acetaminophen causes more liver failure in the United States than viral hepatitis, making it one of the most common causes of liver-related emergency room visits. It causes approximately 78,000 emergency room visits and 150 deaths due to liver failure each year. None of the other medications listed are associated with liver failure.
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The majority of hepatic infections are with which of the following type of microbe?
The majority of hepatic infections are with which of the following type of microbe?
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The majority of liver infections are viral in nature. Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C are the most frequent agents of infection, with hepatitis C being the leading cause of liver transplants. Bacterial infections in the liver most commonly take the form of an abscess. Fungal hepatitis and prion infection of the liver are not generally seen.
The majority of liver infections are viral in nature. Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C are the most frequent agents of infection, with hepatitis C being the leading cause of liver transplants. Bacterial infections in the liver most commonly take the form of an abscess. Fungal hepatitis and prion infection of the liver are not generally seen.
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