Obstetrics and Gynecological Conditions - NCLEX-PN
Card 1 of 1140
Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
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75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
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Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
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The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
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What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
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The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
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What treatment can prevent the development of sensitization to Rh-D antigen in an Rh negative mother carrying an Rh positive fetus?
What treatment can prevent the development of sensitization to Rh-D antigen in an Rh negative mother carrying an Rh positive fetus?
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Rh sensitization can be prevented by treatment of an Rh negative mother with Rho(D) immunoglobulin at 28 weeks, then again within 72 hours of delivery. This is a solution of IgG antibody to Rh-D, which is able to destroy any fetal red blood cells that enter the mother's bloodstream before her own immune system is able to form develop a sensitization.
Rh sensitization can be prevented by treatment of an Rh negative mother with Rho(D) immunoglobulin at 28 weeks, then again within 72 hours of delivery. This is a solution of IgG antibody to Rh-D, which is able to destroy any fetal red blood cells that enter the mother's bloodstream before her own immune system is able to form develop a sensitization.
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Which of the following is a possible cause of vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy?
Which of the following is a possible cause of vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy?
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All of these could be possible reasons for bleeding in early pregnancy, including physiologic or implantation bleeding. Bleeding may indicate threatened miscarriage or other serious condition, or it may simply be due to the implantation of the embryo into the endometrium.
All of these could be possible reasons for bleeding in early pregnancy, including physiologic or implantation bleeding. Bleeding may indicate threatened miscarriage or other serious condition, or it may simply be due to the implantation of the embryo into the endometrium.
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Pregnant individuals with gestational hypertension, proteinuria, and signs of liver or kidney dysfunction should be evaluated for what potentially life-threatening condition?
Pregnant individuals with gestational hypertension, proteinuria, and signs of liver or kidney dysfunction should be evaluated for what potentially life-threatening condition?
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Preeclampsia is a potentially life-threatening disorder that generally includes gestational hypertension, proteinuria, edema, red-blood cell dysfunction, and signs of liver or kidney dysfunction. It is more common in weeks 32-40 and develops in 2-8% of pregnancies worldwide.
Preeclampsia is a potentially life-threatening disorder that generally includes gestational hypertension, proteinuria, edema, red-blood cell dysfunction, and signs of liver or kidney dysfunction. It is more common in weeks 32-40 and develops in 2-8% of pregnancies worldwide.
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Which of the following is a risk for preeclampsia?
Which of the following is a risk for preeclampsia?
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There are several risk factors for preeclampsia. These include history of hypertension, diabetes, older maternal age, first-time pregnancies (primigravida), and pregnancies with twins or multiples.
There are several risk factors for preeclampsia. These include history of hypertension, diabetes, older maternal age, first-time pregnancies (primigravida), and pregnancies with twins or multiples.
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At what point does preeclampsia develop into eclampsia?
At what point does preeclampsia develop into eclampsia?
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Preeclampsia develops into eclampsia at the onset of seizures. Seizures are tonic-clonic and may appear during pregnancy, during labor, or postpartum. It is relatively rare, affecting only approximately 1.2-1.8% of pregnancies.
Preeclampsia develops into eclampsia at the onset of seizures. Seizures are tonic-clonic and may appear during pregnancy, during labor, or postpartum. It is relatively rare, affecting only approximately 1.2-1.8% of pregnancies.
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What is the most common time for miscarriages to occur?
What is the most common time for miscarriages to occur?
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The most common time for miscarriage to occur is during the first trimester, between 8 and 12 weeks. This may even occur before an individual is aware that they are pregnant. Chromosomal abnormalities are identified in approximately 50% of first trimester miscarriages, while later miscarriages may be more likely in individuals with uterine malformations or cervical incompetence.
The most common time for miscarriage to occur is during the first trimester, between 8 and 12 weeks. This may even occur before an individual is aware that they are pregnant. Chromosomal abnormalities are identified in approximately 50% of first trimester miscarriages, while later miscarriages may be more likely in individuals with uterine malformations or cervical incompetence.
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How can endometriosis affect fertility and miscarriage rates?
How can endometriosis affect fertility and miscarriage rates?
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Endometriosis will increases risk of both infertility and of miscarriage. This may be due to a paracrine effect as hormones are released locally by ectopic endometrial tissue, causing disruptions in hormone levels required for implantation and for sustaining an implanted embryo before the formation of the placenta.
Endometriosis will increases risk of both infertility and of miscarriage. This may be due to a paracrine effect as hormones are released locally by ectopic endometrial tissue, causing disruptions in hormone levels required for implantation and for sustaining an implanted embryo before the formation of the placenta.
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Endometriosis is more common in the presence of what food allergy-related condition?
Endometriosis is more common in the presence of what food allergy-related condition?
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In a study surveying 120 women with endometriosis, the prevalence of celiac disease, an autoimmune condition triggered by ingestion of gluten, was nearly four times higher than the general population. No association has been made between the presence of endometriosis and lactose intolerance or incidence of anaphylaxis.
In a study surveying 120 women with endometriosis, the prevalence of celiac disease, an autoimmune condition triggered by ingestion of gluten, was nearly four times higher than the general population. No association has been made between the presence of endometriosis and lactose intolerance or incidence of anaphylaxis.
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The term placenta previa describes which of the following conditions?
The term placenta previa describes which of the following conditions?
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In placenta previa, the placenta develops in such a way that all or part of it is positioned in the lower one-third of the uterus, placing it between the fetus and the cervix. This can cause the placenta to tear and bleed. The most common sign is painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester (generally after week 32).
In placenta previa, the placenta develops in such a way that all or part of it is positioned in the lower one-third of the uterus, placing it between the fetus and the cervix. This can cause the placenta to tear and bleed. The most common sign is painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester (generally after week 32).
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Jean is a 33-year-old woman who has previously had regular periods but has not gotten her period for six months. Which of the following would the nurse rule out as the cause?
Jean is a 33-year-old woman who has previously had regular periods but has not gotten her period for six months. Which of the following would the nurse rule out as the cause?
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Yoga once per week (light exercise) is the least likely of the above to cause a change in regular menstruation. Cross country or long distance running (vigorous exercise) is more likely to cause changes to a woman's cycle. Poor lifestyle choices such as eating habits and health issues such as kidney disease can also cause irregular menstruation. Likewise, pharmaceuticals can have the same effect.
Yoga once per week (light exercise) is the least likely of the above to cause a change in regular menstruation. Cross country or long distance running (vigorous exercise) is more likely to cause changes to a woman's cycle. Poor lifestyle choices such as eating habits and health issues such as kidney disease can also cause irregular menstruation. Likewise, pharmaceuticals can have the same effect.
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Jody is a 40-year-old woman seeking care for dysmenorrhea for the first time. Which would not be considered an appropriate treatment?
Jody is a 40-year-old woman seeking care for dysmenorrhea for the first time. Which would not be considered an appropriate treatment?
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There are many different ways to treat painful periods (dysmenorrhea). Ibuprofen and naproxen are anti-inflammatory agents that do not require a prescription and can be very effective. They have relatively few side effects. Lifestyle modification (such as exercise) is another good alternative. The use of oral contraceptives are also frequently used to give women lighter and milder periods. Percocet is not generally used because it is an opioid analgesic and not recommended for long term use because they carry potential for addiction.
There are many different ways to treat painful periods (dysmenorrhea). Ibuprofen and naproxen are anti-inflammatory agents that do not require a prescription and can be very effective. They have relatively few side effects. Lifestyle modification (such as exercise) is another good alternative. The use of oral contraceptives are also frequently used to give women lighter and milder periods. Percocet is not generally used because it is an opioid analgesic and not recommended for long term use because they carry potential for addiction.
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Sandy is 29 years old and experiences bleeding between periods. The nurse marks which of the following on sandy's medical chart?
Sandy is 29 years old and experiences bleeding between periods. The nurse marks which of the following on sandy's medical chart?
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Metrorrhagia is bleeding between periods. Menorrhagia refers to excessively heavy periods. Oligomenorrhea refers to light, scattered periods (typically spaced by greater than 35 days). Polymenorrhea is used to describe short cycles of equal to or less than 21 days. Menometrorrhagia is used to describe periods that are heavier, sporadic, and more frequent than normal periods.
Metrorrhagia is bleeding between periods. Menorrhagia refers to excessively heavy periods. Oligomenorrhea refers to light, scattered periods (typically spaced by greater than 35 days). Polymenorrhea is used to describe short cycles of equal to or less than 21 days. Menometrorrhagia is used to describe periods that are heavier, sporadic, and more frequent than normal periods.
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Clear-cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina is strongly linked to pre-birth exposure to what medication?
Clear-cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina is strongly linked to pre-birth exposure to what medication?
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Diethylstilbestrol (DES), a medication used from 1940 to 1971 to reduce the risk of miscarriage, resulted in the later development of clear-cell adenocarcinoma in many of the unborn children of these pregnancies.
Diethylstilbestrol (DES), a medication used from 1940 to 1971 to reduce the risk of miscarriage, resulted in the later development of clear-cell adenocarcinoma in many of the unborn children of these pregnancies.
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A patient tells the nurse that she is practicing fertility awareness. The nurse tells the patient that the "unsafe period" can range from .
A patient tells the nurse that she is practicing fertility awareness. The nurse tells the patient that the "unsafe period" can range from .
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According to the family planning method of contraception, the period in which conception can occur and one should refrain from intercourse is up to 7 days before and 7 days after ovulation. Some references show that sperm can live for up to five to seven days inside the female reproductive system. An unfertilized egg can live from between 12-24 hours. This greatly increases the window in which conception can occur.
According to the family planning method of contraception, the period in which conception can occur and one should refrain from intercourse is up to 7 days before and 7 days after ovulation. Some references show that sperm can live for up to five to seven days inside the female reproductive system. An unfertilized egg can live from between 12-24 hours. This greatly increases the window in which conception can occur.
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Which of the following is false regarding oral contraceptives?
Which of the following is false regarding oral contraceptives?
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Oral contraceptives may increase the risk of breast cancer, increase the risk of depression, and increase the risk of developing a blood clot (higher in women who smoke cigarettes). They can reduce the risk of uterine cancer and are frequently used in women with primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstrual cycles without an underlying cause.
Oral contraceptives may increase the risk of breast cancer, increase the risk of depression, and increase the risk of developing a blood clot (higher in women who smoke cigarettes). They can reduce the risk of uterine cancer and are frequently used in women with primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstrual cycles without an underlying cause.
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A 51-year-old female arrives at her doctor's office because she has not had any periods for 12 months. The nurse should suspect .
A 51-year-old female arrives at her doctor's office because she has not had any periods for 12 months. The nurse should suspect .
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Amenorrhea is the complete absence of a period. There are many different causes for amenorrhea. One of the most frequent causes of amenorrhea for women in the fifth decade of life, is menopause. Menopause is the most likely cause of amenorrhea in this particular patient because she has not been experiencing periods for 12 months and is 51-years-old. While pregnancy is possible, the nurse would suspect menopause first. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a pelvic infection usually resulting in severe pain. Endometriosis is a condition in which uterine tissue inappropriately grows in areas such as the rectum or ovary, also typically causing severe pain. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is a condition causing hormone imbalance. It can cause amenorrhea. This question requires the use of strategy to answer. There are several choices that could be responsible for amenorrhea, but which one is the most correct?
Amenorrhea is the complete absence of a period. There are many different causes for amenorrhea. One of the most frequent causes of amenorrhea for women in the fifth decade of life, is menopause. Menopause is the most likely cause of amenorrhea in this particular patient because she has not been experiencing periods for 12 months and is 51-years-old. While pregnancy is possible, the nurse would suspect menopause first. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a pelvic infection usually resulting in severe pain. Endometriosis is a condition in which uterine tissue inappropriately grows in areas such as the rectum or ovary, also typically causing severe pain. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is a condition causing hormone imbalance. It can cause amenorrhea. This question requires the use of strategy to answer. There are several choices that could be responsible for amenorrhea, but which one is the most correct?
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A woman is hospitalized for preeclampsia. Which medication may the nurse administer to prevent the occurrence of seizures?
A woman is hospitalized for preeclampsia. Which medication may the nurse administer to prevent the occurrence of seizures?
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Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia. Calcium gluconate is the antidote if magnesium toxicity is assessed. It should be readily available when a woman is receiving magnesium sulfate. Pitocin is used to stimulate the uterus, often to induce labor. Nubain is an opioid that can be given to women during labor to treat pain. Zolpidem (Ambien) is a sleep aid.
Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia. Calcium gluconate is the antidote if magnesium toxicity is assessed. It should be readily available when a woman is receiving magnesium sulfate. Pitocin is used to stimulate the uterus, often to induce labor. Nubain is an opioid that can be given to women during labor to treat pain. Zolpidem (Ambien) is a sleep aid.
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