Ethics, Processing, and Care - NCLEX-PN
Card 1 of 1728
Droplet precautions are designed to stop the spread of infections diseases that travel through droplets. These droplets may land on the mucosa of the nose or mouth after a host sneezes or coughs. Which of the following conditions does not require the use of droplet precautions?
Droplet precautions are designed to stop the spread of infections diseases that travel through droplets. These droplets may land on the mucosa of the nose or mouth after a host sneezes or coughs. Which of the following conditions does not require the use of droplet precautions?
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Varicella requires airborne precautions. Staff caring for patients with varicella should be immune. One's immunity to varicella can be confirmed by a blood test.
Varicella requires airborne precautions. Staff caring for patients with varicella should be immune. One's immunity to varicella can be confirmed by a blood test.
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At what age should an infant show stranger anxiety?
At what age should an infant show stranger anxiety?
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An infant begins to show signs of anxiety toward strangers between 8 and 12 months of age and may recur until two years of age. This anxiety can show as silence, staring, writhing or crying in the presence of people they don't know.
An infant begins to show signs of anxiety toward strangers between 8 and 12 months of age and may recur until two years of age. This anxiety can show as silence, staring, writhing or crying in the presence of people they don't know.
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At what age does an infant learn object permanence?
At what age does an infant learn object permanence?
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Object permanence is the understanding that an object still exists even when it can not be seen, heard, or touched. It is often tested by placing an object on a surface, then covering that object and allowing the infant to attempt to uncover it, thus demonstrating a knowledge that the object remains present though it is hidden.
Object permanence is the understanding that an object still exists even when it can not be seen, heard, or touched. It is often tested by placing an object on a surface, then covering that object and allowing the infant to attempt to uncover it, thus demonstrating a knowledge that the object remains present though it is hidden.
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At what age does an infant develop the grasping response?
At what age does an infant develop the grasping response?
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The grasping reflex is the earliest reflex developed by the infant. It is often present at birth: the infant will grasp at objects such as a finger placed into their open palm.
The grasping reflex is the earliest reflex developed by the infant. It is often present at birth: the infant will grasp at objects such as a finger placed into their open palm.
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At what age will an infant develop an inferior pincer grasp?
At what age will an infant develop an inferior pincer grasp?
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The inferior pincer grasp is the ability to pick up small objects such as by resting the forearm on a surface and pinching using the sides of the thumb and the index finger. It is an important milestone in the development of fine motor skills.
The inferior pincer grasp is the ability to pick up small objects such as by resting the forearm on a surface and pinching using the sides of the thumb and the index finger. It is an important milestone in the development of fine motor skills.
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Which of the following behaviors would be under the category "grimace" in the APGAR score?
Which of the following behaviors would be under the category "grimace" in the APGAR score?
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The "grimace" category of the APGAR score actually refers to a wide variety of reflexive behavior. These include sneezing and coughing, crying on stimulation, pulling away, and facial expression.
The "grimace" category of the APGAR score actually refers to a wide variety of reflexive behavior. These include sneezing and coughing, crying on stimulation, pulling away, and facial expression.
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At what time after birth is the APGAR score calculated?
At what time after birth is the APGAR score calculated?
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The APGAR score is calculated one minute after birth, and then again at five minutes after birth. It is common for infants to be born with depressed respiration, cyanosis, and other physical signs of struggle that are quickly resolved within five minutes after birth. If signs of respiratory or cardiovascular distress do not improve by this time, however, emergency intervention may be required.
The APGAR score is calculated one minute after birth, and then again at five minutes after birth. It is common for infants to be born with depressed respiration, cyanosis, and other physical signs of struggle that are quickly resolved within five minutes after birth. If signs of respiratory or cardiovascular distress do not improve by this time, however, emergency intervention may be required.
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At what time does molding (the elongation of the baby's head as it passes through the birth canal) resolve in a newborn?
At what time does molding (the elongation of the baby's head as it passes through the birth canal) resolve in a newborn?
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Molding, or the elongation of the infants head during labor and delivery, is a normal adaptation allowing the relatively large skull to traverse the narrow space of the birth canal. It generally resolves in 1-5 days.
Molding, or the elongation of the infants head during labor and delivery, is a normal adaptation allowing the relatively large skull to traverse the narrow space of the birth canal. It generally resolves in 1-5 days.
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How long after birth should a newborn pass meconium?
How long after birth should a newborn pass meconium?
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Meconium is a sticky, dark-green to black stool that is the first stool passed by neonates after birth. It is composed of the content of the infant's digestive tract before it has begun drinking milk - primarily water, mucus, bile, lanugo, and intestinal epithelial cells. A newborn that has begun to feed on breastmilk or formula should pass a normal stool (yellow to mustard-green and creamy rather than sticky) within 24 hours.
Meconium is a sticky, dark-green to black stool that is the first stool passed by neonates after birth. It is composed of the content of the infant's digestive tract before it has begun drinking milk - primarily water, mucus, bile, lanugo, and intestinal epithelial cells. A newborn that has begun to feed on breastmilk or formula should pass a normal stool (yellow to mustard-green and creamy rather than sticky) within 24 hours.
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Which is the most common homeopathic remedy for mild otitis media in a child that is weepy, clingy, and refuses fluids?
Which is the most common homeopathic remedy for mild otitis media in a child that is weepy, clingy, and refuses fluids?
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Pulsatilla is most often given for otitis media when the child is clingy, weepy, refuses fluids, and wants to be held or carried. They may be hot or sensitive to heat and desire fresh air. Belladonna may be used as a pain reliever, and and anti-inflammatory remedy. Arsenicum album is commonly used to treat anxiety and gastrointestinal inflammation. Sepia is most often used to treat female reproductive-related ailments.
Pulsatilla is most often given for otitis media when the child is clingy, weepy, refuses fluids, and wants to be held or carried. They may be hot or sensitive to heat and desire fresh air. Belladonna may be used as a pain reliever, and and anti-inflammatory remedy. Arsenicum album is commonly used to treat anxiety and gastrointestinal inflammation. Sepia is most often used to treat female reproductive-related ailments.
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Which botanical is known for its antiviral/antiretroviral activity?
Which botanical is known for its antiviral/antiretroviral activity?
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Hypericum perforatum (St. John's wort) has shown significant antiviral activity against a wide variety of of enveloped viruses and retroviruses. Melissa officinalis (lemon balm) and a_vena sativa_ (milky oat seeds) are both better known for their sedative effects, and c_rategus spp_ (hawthorne) is used as an antiarrhythmic and mitigates oxidative stress in cardiomyopathies.
Hypericum perforatum (St. John's wort) has shown significant antiviral activity against a wide variety of of enveloped viruses and retroviruses. Melissa officinalis (lemon balm) and a_vena sativa_ (milky oat seeds) are both better known for their sedative effects, and c_rategus spp_ (hawthorne) is used as an antiarrhythmic and mitigates oxidative stress in cardiomyopathies.
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What anti-microbial constituent makes Arctostaphylos uva-ursi useful for treating urinary tract infections?
What anti-microbial constituent makes Arctostaphylos uva-ursi useful for treating urinary tract infections?
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Uva-ursi contains the hydroquinone glycosides arbutin and methylarbutin, both of which have shown significant antimicrobial effects in the urinary tract. The other constituents listed have no effect on urinary infections.
Uva-ursi contains the hydroquinone glycosides arbutin and methylarbutin, both of which have shown significant antimicrobial effects in the urinary tract. The other constituents listed have no effect on urinary infections.
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A nurse is monitoring an 18 year old who is experiencing heroin withdrawal. What symptoms might the nurse observe?
A nurse is monitoring an 18 year old who is experiencing heroin withdrawal. What symptoms might the nurse observe?
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Yawning, cramps, and diarrhea are common signs of heroin withdrawal.
Yawning, cramps, and diarrhea are common signs of heroin withdrawal.
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An emergency room nurse is assessing a 26 year old female patient who frequently uses opium. What symptoms would indicate that she is experiencing withdrawal?
An emergency room nurse is assessing a 26 year old female patient who frequently uses opium. What symptoms would indicate that she is experiencing withdrawal?
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Anxiety, nausea, and vomiting are common symptoms of opium withdrawal.
Anxiety, nausea, and vomiting are common symptoms of opium withdrawal.
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Which of the following describes the professional role of the nurse in a healthcare setting?
Which of the following describes the professional role of the nurse in a healthcare setting?
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All of these are important professional roles of the nurse in a healthcare setting.
All of these are important professional roles of the nurse in a healthcare setting.
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Which of the following is not determined by urinalysis?
Which of the following is not determined by urinalysis?
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A urinalysis can be an important tool in diagnosis conditions such as the presence of kidney stones, urinary tract infection and even dehydration. A typical urinalysis will contain information on all of the parameters indicated. The presence of glucose, ketones, crystals, casts, and leukocyte esterase may also be included.
A urinalysis can be an important tool in diagnosis conditions such as the presence of kidney stones, urinary tract infection and even dehydration. A typical urinalysis will contain information on all of the parameters indicated. The presence of glucose, ketones, crystals, casts, and leukocyte esterase may also be included.
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Which of the following laboratory values is not reported in a basic metabolic profile (BMP).
Which of the following laboratory values is not reported in a basic metabolic profile (BMP).
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A BMP is a commonly ordered lab value set on patients. It checks commonly reported electrolytes in the body. It is also known as a Chem-7. It looks at: Sodium, potassium, carbon dioxide, bicarbonate, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, and glucose. Phosphorous is not included in this laboratory order, and must be checked separately.
A BMP is a commonly ordered lab value set on patients. It checks commonly reported electrolytes in the body. It is also known as a Chem-7. It looks at: Sodium, potassium, carbon dioxide, bicarbonate, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, and glucose. Phosphorous is not included in this laboratory order, and must be checked separately.
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A nurse administers one unit of packed red blood cells. 4-6 hours later, what change can be expected in the patient's hemoglobin levels?
A nurse administers one unit of packed red blood cells. 4-6 hours later, what change can be expected in the patient's hemoglobin levels?
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A nurse should expect to see an approximately 3% increase in the recipient's hemoglobin 4-6 hours after the administration of one unit of packed red blood cells.
A nurse should expect to see an approximately 3% increase in the recipient's hemoglobin 4-6 hours after the administration of one unit of packed red blood cells.
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Which of the following has been removed from washed red blood cells?
Which of the following has been removed from washed red blood cells?
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Washed red blood cells are the product of blood that has been stripped of plasma, leukocytes, antibodies, cytokines, and platelets, in addition to any other blood proteins.
Washed red blood cells are the product of blood that has been stripped of plasma, leukocytes, antibodies, cytokines, and platelets, in addition to any other blood proteins.
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Washed red blood cells are generally administered to which of the following patient populations?
Washed red blood cells are generally administered to which of the following patient populations?
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Washed red blood cells are generally prepared for patients with a history of severe allergic reaction to blood transfusion. Washed red blood cells are not generally required in patients with kidney disease, patient who are immunocompromised, or patients with metastatic disease.
Washed red blood cells are generally prepared for patients with a history of severe allergic reaction to blood transfusion. Washed red blood cells are not generally required in patients with kidney disease, patient who are immunocompromised, or patients with metastatic disease.
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