Drug Identification - NCLEX-PN
Card 1 of 1272
The purpose of misoprostol in a client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is:
The purpose of misoprostol in a client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is:
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Misoprostol is used for the prevention of non steroidal anti inflammatory drug (NSAID) induced gastric ulcers. Taking this drug will prevent gastric ulcers and relieve epigastric pain.
Misoprostol is used for the prevention of non steroidal anti inflammatory drug (NSAID) induced gastric ulcers. Taking this drug will prevent gastric ulcers and relieve epigastric pain.
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Which of the following laboratory values would indicate toxicity in the client taking acetaminophen daily?
Which of the following laboratory values would indicate toxicity in the client taking acetaminophen daily?
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A direct bilirubin level of 2mg/dL or greater indicates acetaminophen toxicity.
A direct bilirubin level of 2mg/dL or greater indicates acetaminophen toxicity.
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Which of the following analgesics is available in "lollipop" form?
Which of the following analgesics is available in "lollipop" form?
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Fentanyl citrate comes in solid form on a stick (often referred to as a "fentanyl lollipop"). This form is 80-100 times more potent than morphine and intended for use by cancer patients and patients that have become tolerant to opioids.
Fentanyl citrate comes in solid form on a stick (often referred to as a "fentanyl lollipop"). This form is 80-100 times more potent than morphine and intended for use by cancer patients and patients that have become tolerant to opioids.
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Which of the following is an antidote to opioid overdose?
Which of the following is an antidote to opioid overdose?
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Naloxone antidotes opioid overdose by competitively binding to μ-opioid receptors. Flumazenil is an antidote to benzodiazepines. Glucagon is an antidote for beta blocker overdose. N-acetylcysteine is an antidote for acetaminophen.
Naloxone antidotes opioid overdose by competitively binding to μ-opioid receptors. Flumazenil is an antidote to benzodiazepines. Glucagon is an antidote for beta blocker overdose. N-acetylcysteine is an antidote for acetaminophen.
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Which of the following over-the-counter analgesics is one of the most common causes of liver failure in the United States?
Which of the following over-the-counter analgesics is one of the most common causes of liver failure in the United States?
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Acetaminophen in doses over 3000mg per day can result in significant liver damage or liver failure. From 1998 to 2003, acetaminophen was the leading cause of acute liver failure in the United States. According to a population-based report in 2007 there are an estimated 1600 cases of acute liver failure in the United States every year, with acetaminophen being the most common etiology.
Acetaminophen in doses over 3000mg per day can result in significant liver damage or liver failure. From 1998 to 2003, acetaminophen was the leading cause of acute liver failure in the United States. According to a population-based report in 2007 there are an estimated 1600 cases of acute liver failure in the United States every year, with acetaminophen being the most common etiology.
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Celecoxib is what class of drug?
Celecoxib is what class of drug?
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Celecoxib is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). These drugs work by inhibiting cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2), which reduces the synthesis of pro-inflammatory prostaglandins and thromboxane.
Celecoxib is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). These drugs work by inhibiting cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2), which reduces the synthesis of pro-inflammatory prostaglandins and thromboxane.
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Levodopa is not generally given alone due to what side effects?
Levodopa is not generally given alone due to what side effects?
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Levodopa (L-DOPA), a common treatment for Parkinson's disease, is generally given in combination with carbidopa or another peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor. This is because levodopa alone will stimulate dopamine receptors in the GI tract and the chemotrigger receptor zone (CTZ) in the brain, resulting in nausea, vomiting and anorexia. A peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor prevents levodopa from being prematurely converted into dopamine in the adrenal glands or other peripheral tissues.
Levodopa (L-DOPA), a common treatment for Parkinson's disease, is generally given in combination with carbidopa or another peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor. This is because levodopa alone will stimulate dopamine receptors in the GI tract and the chemotrigger receptor zone (CTZ) in the brain, resulting in nausea, vomiting and anorexia. A peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor prevents levodopa from being prematurely converted into dopamine in the adrenal glands or other peripheral tissues.
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How does adalimumab function to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis?
How does adalimumab function to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis?
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Adalimumab is a tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) inhibitor. This class of drugs suppresses response to TNF-alpha, a potent pro-inflammatory cytokine. Inhibition of folic acid metabolism is the method of action of methotrexate. Reversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) is the mechanism of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen. Rheumatoid arthritis drugs such as rituximab, and almost all drugs that end in -mab, including adalimumab function as monoclonal antibodies.
Adalimumab is a tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) inhibitor. This class of drugs suppresses response to TNF-alpha, a potent pro-inflammatory cytokine. Inhibition of folic acid metabolism is the method of action of methotrexate. Reversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) is the mechanism of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen. Rheumatoid arthritis drugs such as rituximab, and almost all drugs that end in -mab, including adalimumab function as monoclonal antibodies.
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You are the nurse taking care of a patient who is started on a two-week course of oral prednisone. Which of the following is a known side effect of oral steroids?
You are the nurse taking care of a patient who is started on a two-week course of oral prednisone. Which of the following is a known side effect of oral steroids?
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The correct answer is "insomnia," as steroids are known to increase patients' vigilance and energy levels, thereby frequently making it difficult for patients to fall asleep and/or stay asleep while taking their steroid medication. The other choices are incorrect. Decreased appetite is not a side effect of taking steroid medications. Patients on steroids often have increased appetite. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia both are not side effects of taking steroid medications. Hypernatremia and hypokalemia are more common side effects of steroids. Hypertension, rather than hypotension is a known side effect of steroid use.
The correct answer is "insomnia," as steroids are known to increase patients' vigilance and energy levels, thereby frequently making it difficult for patients to fall asleep and/or stay asleep while taking their steroid medication. The other choices are incorrect. Decreased appetite is not a side effect of taking steroid medications. Patients on steroids often have increased appetite. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia both are not side effects of taking steroid medications. Hypernatremia and hypokalemia are more common side effects of steroids. Hypertension, rather than hypotension is a known side effect of steroid use.
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Which of the following analgesic medications should be used with caution in patients with hepatic disease?
Which of the following analgesic medications should be used with caution in patients with hepatic disease?
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The correct answer is "acetaminophen." This is the correct answer because acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, is initially metabolized into a hepatotoxic intermediate (it transiently becomes a reactive oxygen species, which can cause liver hepatotoxicity). As such, in patients who already have pre-existing liver disease who are already more prone to liver injury from substances and diseases that affect the liver, it is prudent to avoid medications like acetaminophen that have a known potential to cause liver damage.
Meloxicam, ibuprofen, naproxen, and ketorolac are all examples of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). These medications have the potential to cause renal damage or gastrointestinal damage if used in excess, but do not have the known hepatotoxic properties that acetaminophen does.
The correct answer is "acetaminophen." This is the correct answer because acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, is initially metabolized into a hepatotoxic intermediate (it transiently becomes a reactive oxygen species, which can cause liver hepatotoxicity). As such, in patients who already have pre-existing liver disease who are already more prone to liver injury from substances and diseases that affect the liver, it is prudent to avoid medications like acetaminophen that have a known potential to cause liver damage.
Meloxicam, ibuprofen, naproxen, and ketorolac are all examples of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). These medications have the potential to cause renal damage or gastrointestinal damage if used in excess, but do not have the known hepatotoxic properties that acetaminophen does.
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You are the nurse taking care of a patient with severe lower back pain. He is being treated with oxycodone and hydromorphone. Which of the following analgesic medications produces dilated pupils?
You are the nurse taking care of a patient with severe lower back pain. He is being treated with oxycodone and hydromorphone. Which of the following analgesic medications produces dilated pupils?
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The correct answer is "meperidine." Meperidine, a potent opioid analgesic, also known as Demerol, is one of the only opioids that produces dilated pupils, rather than constricted, "pinpoint" pupils. A way to remember this is to remember the phrase, "Demerol Dilates." The other choices are incorrect. Acetaminophen has no known effect on pupil size. Morphine, oxycodone, and hydromorphone, all opioid analgesics, are known to constrict the pupils.
The correct answer is "meperidine." Meperidine, a potent opioid analgesic, also known as Demerol, is one of the only opioids that produces dilated pupils, rather than constricted, "pinpoint" pupils. A way to remember this is to remember the phrase, "Demerol Dilates." The other choices are incorrect. Acetaminophen has no known effect on pupil size. Morphine, oxycodone, and hydromorphone, all opioid analgesics, are known to constrict the pupils.
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You are the nurse taking care of a patient who is hospitalized for severe lower back pain. The patient also has a medical history significant for multiple gastrointestinal bleeds and peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following medications should be used with extreme caution in this patient given his medical history?
You are the nurse taking care of a patient who is hospitalized for severe lower back pain. The patient also has a medical history significant for multiple gastrointestinal bleeds and peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following medications should be used with extreme caution in this patient given his medical history?
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The correct answer is "NSAIDs." This is the correct answer because NSAIDs are known to be irritants of the gastrointestinal tract, and prolonged and/or extensive use of NSAIDs can increase the risk of developing gastrointestinal ulcers, as well as consequent gastrointestinal bleeds in the setting of ulcers. Given this patient's medical history, which already contains multiple gastrointestinal bleeds and peptic ulcer disease, NSAIDs should be used very, very carefully, if at all, in this patient.
The other choices are incorrect. Acetaminophen is not known to increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding or peptic ulcer formation. Morphine, oxycodone, and hydromorphone are all opioid analgesics and are not known to increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding or peptic ulcer formation.
The correct answer is "NSAIDs." This is the correct answer because NSAIDs are known to be irritants of the gastrointestinal tract, and prolonged and/or extensive use of NSAIDs can increase the risk of developing gastrointestinal ulcers, as well as consequent gastrointestinal bleeds in the setting of ulcers. Given this patient's medical history, which already contains multiple gastrointestinal bleeds and peptic ulcer disease, NSAIDs should be used very, very carefully, if at all, in this patient.
The other choices are incorrect. Acetaminophen is not known to increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding or peptic ulcer formation. Morphine, oxycodone, and hydromorphone are all opioid analgesics and are not known to increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding or peptic ulcer formation.
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What is the mechanism of action of amoxicillin?
What is the mechanism of action of amoxicillin?
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Amoxicillin inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by interfering with the formation of cross-links between peptidoglycan polymer chains.
Amoxicillin inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by interfering with the formation of cross-links between peptidoglycan polymer chains.
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Each of the following antibiotics works by inhibition of the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes except .
Each of the following antibiotics works by inhibition of the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes except .
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Macrolides, streptogramins, and clindamycin all work by inhibition of the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes. Tetracyclines have a similar mechanism of action, but instead affect the 30S unit of bacterial ribosomes.
Macrolides, streptogramins, and clindamycin all work by inhibition of the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes. Tetracyclines have a similar mechanism of action, but instead affect the 30S unit of bacterial ribosomes.
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Polymyxin antibiotics target what part of the bacterial cellular anatomy?
Polymyxin antibiotics target what part of the bacterial cellular anatomy?
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Polymyxin antibiotics function by interfering with phospholipid function in bacterial cell membranes. After binding to lipopolysaccharide (LPS) in the outer membrane, polymyxins' hydrophobic tail causes damage to both the inner and outer membranes of Gram-negative bacteria.
Polymyxin antibiotics function by interfering with phospholipid function in bacterial cell membranes. After binding to lipopolysaccharide (LPS) in the outer membrane, polymyxins' hydrophobic tail causes damage to both the inner and outer membranes of Gram-negative bacteria.
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What is rifampin's mechanism of action?
What is rifampin's mechanism of action?
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Rifampin inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis by inhibiting RNA polymerase. This prevents the transcription of proteins within the bacterial cell, leading to cell death.
Rifampin inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis by inhibiting RNA polymerase. This prevents the transcription of proteins within the bacterial cell, leading to cell death.
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What is the most serious potential adverse effect of rifampin use?
What is the most serious potential adverse effect of rifampin use?
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Hepatotoxicity and potential liver failure are the most serious potential adverse effects of rifampin use. Patients on this medication must establish baseline liver function tests and be monitored for liver damage. None of the other conditions listed are associated with rifampin use.
Hepatotoxicity and potential liver failure are the most serious potential adverse effects of rifampin use. Patients on this medication must establish baseline liver function tests and be monitored for liver damage. None of the other conditions listed are associated with rifampin use.
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Aminoglycosides are primarily used for infections by what type of pathogen?
Aminoglycosides are primarily used for infections by what type of pathogen?
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Aminoglycoside antibiotics are used to treat Gram negative bacteria. They have not been shown to be effective against Gram positive bacteria and are not antifungal. Recall the major difference between the Gram negative and positive bacteria are their cell wall composition; Gram negative have a small proportion of peptidoglycan and a high proportion of lipopolysaccharide, while Gram negative bacteria have a large proportion of peptidoglycan.
Aminoglycoside antibiotics are used to treat Gram negative bacteria. They have not been shown to be effective against Gram positive bacteria and are not antifungal. Recall the major difference between the Gram negative and positive bacteria are their cell wall composition; Gram negative have a small proportion of peptidoglycan and a high proportion of lipopolysaccharide, while Gram negative bacteria have a large proportion of peptidoglycan.
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Which of the following is an example of an aminoglycoside antibiotic?
Which of the following is an example of an aminoglycoside antibiotic?
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The only aminoglycoside antibiotic among those listed is streptomycin. Other examples of aminoglycosides include tobramycin and gentamicin. All aminoglycosides either end in -mycin or -micin. However, this suffix is not exclusive to aminoglycosides. It is also seen in the macrolides: erythromycin and azithromycin and both macrolides, and in lincosamides such as clindamycin.
The only aminoglycoside antibiotic among those listed is streptomycin. Other examples of aminoglycosides include tobramycin and gentamicin. All aminoglycosides either end in -mycin or -micin. However, this suffix is not exclusive to aminoglycosides. It is also seen in the macrolides: erythromycin and azithromycin and both macrolides, and in lincosamides such as clindamycin.
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Which of the following class of antibiotics is associated with ototoxicity and hearing loss?
Which of the following class of antibiotics is associated with ototoxicity and hearing loss?
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Aminoglycoside antibiotics such as streptomycin and gentamicin have been associated with vestibular toxicity and hearing loss. Aminoglycosides remain in inner ear fluids longer than serum and can have a latent ototoxic effect, causing hearing loss even after the antibiotic has been discontinued. None of the other antibiotics listed are associated with ototoxicity.
Aminoglycoside antibiotics such as streptomycin and gentamicin have been associated with vestibular toxicity and hearing loss. Aminoglycosides remain in inner ear fluids longer than serum and can have a latent ototoxic effect, causing hearing loss even after the antibiotic has been discontinued. None of the other antibiotics listed are associated with ototoxicity.
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